I believe there are three distinct Persons in the Godhead: God the Father, Jesus His Son, and the Holy Spirit. Am I right or wrong about this?

The Father is clearly presented as God in the Scriptures. No one doubts this. He is distinct from the Son, who is also God. The two divine Persons comprise the one Godhead. The Holy Spirit, however, is not presented in Scripture as a third and distinct Person of the Godhead. The Spirit is personified on occasion, but is generally described as the power and presence of the transcendent God in the natural world.

       David said, "Where can I go from Your Spirit? Or where can I flee from Your presence?" (Psalm 139:7). Here, "Your Spirit" is synonymous with "Your presence," showing that the Spirit of God is the spiritual presence of the supernatural God in the natural world.

       Speaking of the conception and birth of Jesus, the angel Gabriel said to Mary, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God" (Luke 1:35). Here, "Holy Spirit" is synonymous with "power of the Highest," showing that the Spirit of God is the power of God.

       A comparison of the parallel accounts of Luke 11:19,20 and Matthew 12:28 shows that "Spirit of God" is synonymous with "finger of God." This describes God's "reaching down" and "touching" the lives of human beings. It is simply another way of describing the presence and activity of the invisible God in the natural world. The description of the Spirit as the "finger of God" does not fit the belief that the Spirit is the third Person of the Godhead.

       Many point to John 1416, where Jesus describes the Spirit as "another Helper" (or "Comforter") having personal attributes. However, this description is consistent with Jewish and biblical metaphors for the divine attributesthe personification of "Wisdom," for example (see Proverbs 8). Further, this section of John's Gospel is filled with metaphorical descriptions. Jesus Himself said it clearly: "These things I have spoken to you in figurative language" (John 16:25).

       The many passages that mention the Father and the Son, but make no reference to the Spirit, reflect the New Testament writers' view of the Holy Spirit. Check Matthew 11:27; Romans 1:7; 1 Corinthians 1:3; 2 Corinthians 1:2,3; Galatians 1:3,4; Ephesians 1:2,3; Philippians 1:2; Colossians 1:2,3; 1 Thessalonians 1:1; 2 Thessalonians 1:2; 1 Timothy 1:2; 2 Timothy 1:2; Titus 1:4; Philemon 1:3; James 1:1; 1 John 1:3; 2:24; 5:20; 2 John 1:3,9; Jude 1:1; Revelation 21:22,23; 22:3.

If there are only two Persons in the Godhead (the Father and the Son), how can one be baptized in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit?

Jesus said to His disciples, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and in earth. Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:19,20).

       The expression "in [eis, "into"] the name of" denotes "in recognition of the authority of (sometimes combined with the thought of relying or resting on)" (W.E. Vine, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, p. 772). Baptism is performed in recognition of the Father's authority, which is administered through the mediatorship of the Son and confirmed by the reception of the Holy Spirit.

       The fact that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are mentioned together does not prove that all three are in precisely the same category. Paul speaks of "God and the Lord Jesus Christ and the elect angels" (1 Timothy 5:21), and no one would argue that the angels belong to the same category as God the Father and Christ the Son. Similarly, the fact that the Holy Spirit is mentioned along with the Father and the Son does not mean that the Spirit is the third Person of a triune Godhead.

       Since the expression Holy Spirit is consistently used in reference to the presence and power of the transcendent God in the natural world, it is not surprising that Jesus Christ, who has been given authority in heaven and earth (the natural and supernatural worlds), should mention the Holy Spirit in this context. In heaven, the Father gives power to the Son. On earth, the expression of that power is called the "Holy Spirit," "Spirit of God," or "Spirit of Christ" (Romans 8:911). It is the presence and power of God, both the Father and the Son.

How do you explain Isaiah 45:5 when your belief is that God is a Family?

Isaiah 45:5 states, "I am the Lord, and there is no other; There is no God besides Me." This passage tells us there is but one Godthat is, one "Godhead," or "God Family"but does not address the question of whether the Godhead is comprised of more than one Person. Other passages show that both the Father and the Son may be addressed with all the divine names and titles. Therefore, both are God. The two divine Persons comprise the one Godhead.

       There are many Old Testament passages asserting that there is no God besides the one God. All such statements are made in view of the many "gods" acknowledged and worshiped by the nations. By saying, "There is no God besides Me," God is saying that the so-called "gods" the heathen worship are false deities. He is not saying that the Deity (the Godhead) is restricted to only one divine Person.

The Bible says there is only one God. Yet, you speak of the Father and the Son as the "two Persons of the Godhead." Doesn't this suggest more than one God?

Both the Old Testament and the New clearly state that there is only one God (Deuteronomy 6:4; 32:39; 1 Corinthians 8:46; James 2:19). However, this does not necessarily mean that the one Deity (or Godhead) is limited to one Person. The Father is called "God" throughout the New Testament. Christ is called "God" in only a few passages (see John 1:1; 20:28; Titus 2:13,14; Hebrews 1:8), but some scholars question the translation and/or meaning of some of these passages. Nevertheless, the deity of Christ is clearly seen in the fact that He is worshiped (Hebrews 1:6; Revelation 5:13), prayed to (Acts 7:59), and given titles denoting divinity (John 4:42; cf. Hosea 13:4; Revelation 1:17; cf. Isaiah 41:4; 44:6; 48:12).

       The unity and plurality of God can be understood by recognizing the difference between essence and persons.

       Consider the following: (1) God is Spirit (John 4:24). Spirit, therefore, is the essence of God. It is what God is. (2) There is only one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4). (3) Therefore, God, who is Spirit, is one in essence.

       Our conclusion, then, is that when the Bible says that God is one, it means that the Deity is one in essencethat is, one Spirit, one divine nature.

       Now, consider further: (1) The Father is God, and is personally distinct from the Son. (2) The Son is God, and is personally distinct from the Father. (3) Therefore, God is more than one in Person.

       When we put all these facts together, we can come to only one conclusion: The Deity, or Godhead, is one in essence but more than one in Person. In our tradition, we have used a simple description that we believe adequately and appropriately conveys an understanding of the relationship between God the Father and Jesus Christ the Son. We have spoken of this composite unity as a Family, since "family" can be defined as "any class of like or related things." Since the Father is not the Son, but is like the Son in that the two Persons share the divine nature, they may be described as a "Family."

       One way of understanding both the unity and plurality of God is through comparing the Divinity with Humanity. Originally, Humanity consisted of Adam and Eve. There was only one Humanity, but the one Humanity was comprised of two distinct persons. As God is one in essence but more than one in Person, so Humanity was "one flesh" (Genesis 2:24), but more than one person.

       The Bible even speaks of Humanity as if "he" were an individual person. Speaking of the human race, God says, "Manis indeed flesh; yet his days shall be one hundred and twenty years" (Genesis 6:3). God "saw the wickedness of manand that the intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually" (verse 5). Similarly, God is called "He" and "Him," and is often described as an individual Person. But Scripture reveals that the one God is more than one in Person.

       Of course, this analogy breaks down at some point because of the limitations of comparing flesh with Spirit. Nevertheless, it should help satisfy our need to understand how God can be one yet more than one.

       When a Samaritan woman spoke with Jesus about the places of worship for her people and His, He informed her that true worship is not restricted to a place. He said, "God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth" (John 4:24). He simply meant that God, because He is Spirit and therefore not limited to a particular place, can be worshiped anyplace. Jesus's emphasis is on how to worship God, not where to worship Him.

       Jesus was applying to the worship of God what the Old Testament had already revealed about Him. Since God is omnipresent, meaning that there is no place inaccessible to Him, true worshipers can experience His presence at any time and in any place.

       David said, "Where can I go from Your Spirit? Or where can I flee from Your presence? If I ascend into heaven, You are there; if I make my bed in hell [sheol, or "the pit"], behold, You are there" (Psalm 139:7,8).

       Through the prophet Jeremiah, God says, "Am I a God near at handand not a God afar off? Can anyone hide himself in secret places, so I shall not see him? Do I not fill heaven and earth?" (Jeremiah 23:23,24).

       When Solomon offered a prayer of dedication of the Temple, he said, "Behold, heaven and the heaven of heavens cannot contain You. How much less this temple which I have built!" (2 Chronicles 6:18).

       The apostle Paul acknowledged God's omnipresence. He said that "He is not far from each one of us; for in Him we live and move and have our being," and that "we ought not to think that the Divine Nature is like gold or silver or stone, something shaped by art and man's devising" (Acts 17:27-29).

       Believers in China, Australia, Europe, Canada, Jamaica, the Philippines, and the United States can fellowship with God through His Spirit at precisely the same time; and, as Paul points out, there is "one body [one universal church] and one Spirit" (Ephesians 4:4). The Father and the Son share the one Spirit, the one divine nature, that is not limited by time and space. The one Spirit is called both the "Spirit of God" and "Spirit of Christ" (Romans 8:9). "Christ in you" is synonymous with the indwelling of "the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead" (verses 10,11). As Paul says, "the Lord [referring to Yahweh] is the Spirit" (2 Corinthians 3:17). The divine name (Yahweh) may be used in reference to either the Father or the Son, or to the composite unity we often call "the Godhead."

       The Bible is clear; there is one essenceone divine nature, one Spiritbut there is more than one divine Person. This omnipresent Spirit is what we call "the Godhead," or "the Deity." It was the Second Person of the Godhead who became Jesus Christ. This grand truth is expressed beautifully in the prologue of the Fourth Gospel: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us" (John 1:13,14).

I fully believe that Jesus is the Son of God. I am confused with one question here though. Are we to worship Jesus Christ, when God states in the Old Testament to only worship Him?

The Bible clearly teaches that only God is to be worshiped. But it is a mistake to assume that the term God is restricted to the Father only. John 1:1 states, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." This same "Word," we are told, "became flesh and dwelt among us" (verse 14). The Word was none other than Jesus Christ. He was with God (the Father), and He was God. The one Godhead consists of two divine Persons, God the Father and Jesus Christ the Son.

       John's Gospel is not alone in declaring the divinity of Jesus Christ. The Synoptic GospelsMatthew, Mark, and Lukeinform us that Christ is greater than the Temple (Matthew 12:6), is Lord of the Sabbath day (verse 8), has power to forgive sins (Mark 2:5,10), has power to baptize with the Holy Spirit (Mark 1:8), is the ultimate Judge of the wicked (Matthew 7:21-23; Luke 3:17), and accepts worship (Matthew 8:2; 9:18; 14:33; 28:9,17).

       We can come to only one logical conclusion: Jesus Christ is truly God! He is therefore worthy of our worship.

In one of your articles you state that God has been here on the earth and appeared to men. Yet, the Bible plainly states that no man can see God and live. Are you not calling God a liar?

No, we are not calling God a liar. When God told Moses that "no man shall see Me, and live" (Exodus 33:20), He was saying that humans cannot see God for all that He is. It is simply not possible. However, God is fully capable of appearing in a form that can be seen by humans. In fact, God made many appearances in Old Testament times. Let's consider just one of them:

       "Then Moses went up, also Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the elders of Israel, and they saw the God of Israel. And there was under His feet as it were a paved work of sapphire stone, and it was like the very heavens in its clarity. But on the nobles of the children of Israel He did not lay His hand. So they saw God, and they ate and drank" (Exodus 24:9-11).

       Now, did the nobles of Israel see God, or not? This passage says they did! Of course, we know from other scriptures that they could not have seen God in His full glory, but the text plainly says that they saw God! He presented Himself to them in a form they could see.

       The appearances of God in the Old Testament are called Theophanies. The term means "appearances of God." The article you refer to takes the position that the divine Person who appears repeatedly as the "Angel of the Lord" in the Old Testament is none other than the preincarnate Christ, who is in very nature God.

You have said that the One who became Christ was the God of the Old Testament, but Hebrews 1:1 says that God (not Jesus) at sundry times and manners spoke to the prophets of the Old Testamentbut now in these last times He has spoken to us by His Son, Jesus. Doesn't this suggest that the Father spoke to the prophets and that Jesus did not speak to the prophets or us at any prior time?

We have stated many times that the Person of the Godhead who became a flesh-and-blood human being was "the God of the Old Testament." However, this statement needs some clarification. First, the word God can be used in reference to the Godhead (the Father and the Son together). It can also be used in reference to either Person of the Godhead. Thus, the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Family consisting of Father and Son is God. When we say that the Person who later became Jesus Christ was "the God of the Old Testament," we mean that the Member of the God Family (or Godhead) who appeared to and spoke with the ancients was the One who later came in the flesh. Actually, it is correct to say that God the Father was the God of the Old Testament. The Logos, or "Word" (John 1:1), served as His Agent, or Spokesman, who acted on behalf of the Supreme Sovereign. That both were involved in creation is seen in Genesis 1:26 and in John 1:13. Genesis 1:26 states, "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness." John 1:13 states: "In the beginning was the Word [the Logos], and the Word was with God [the Father], and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made." Thus, both divine Persons participated in creation. Both are "God," though they differ functionally. Notice that Hebrews 1:1 says that God spoke to the prophets "in divers manners." One of the "diverse manners" in which the Father spoke to the prophets was through the One who later came in the flesh. When God sent His Son, the Son spoke to His disciples directly, without the use of prophets.

In Revelation 3:14, Jesus says He is "the beginning of the creation of God." Was Jesus created first, before anything else?

In Revelation 3:14, the term "beginning" is better rendered "origin" (as in the New Revised Standard Version), or "source" ("prime source" in the New English Bible). Christ was the Origin of the creation of God, not in the sense of "original creation," but in the sense of "Originator," or "originating Instrument." He was the "Beginning" in that He was the Beginner. This concurs fully with John 1:3: "All things were made by [or through] Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made." He obviously was not made, for nothing was made without Him. This also agrees with Colossians 1:15,16: "Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature [or "firstborn of all creation," NRSV]: For [i.e., here's why He is Firstborn of all creation] by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible." In this passage, "Firstborn" is a title of preeminence. It tells us that Christ has preeminence over all creation because He is Creatorthat is, He was the Agent through whom the Father created all things. He is obviously not one of the created "things."

Doesn't Proverbs 8:22-31 clearly indicate that the Logos was a created beingin fact, the Father's first creation?

John wrote, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth" (John 1:13,14).

       The "Word," or Logos (Greek), was the Father's agent in Creation. He was with the Father in the beginning, and was Himself divine. He came to this earth as a flesh-and-blood human beingJesus Christand gave His life for the sins of the world.

       Many early apologists and a few modern commentators believe the "Wisdom" of Proverbs 8 is none other than the preincarnate Christthe divine Logos who acted as the Father's agent in creation and in communicating with the ancients. However, most recognize the poetic nature of the passage and conclude that the author was using simple personification.

       Personification is common in ancient and modern literature, and was used frequently by the prophets and poets of Israel. In the Hebrew texts, sin lies in wait for unsuspecting victims (Genesis 4:7), Abel's blood cries out to God (verse 10), cyprus trees and the cedars of Lebanon rejoice over the fall of the king of Babylon (Isaiah 14:8), the grave excitedly expects to meet the king (verse 9), mountains and hills rejoice, and the trees of the field clap their hands (Isaiah 55:12). It's not surprising to find "wisdom" offering admonition to the foolish, and there's no reason to think that the poetic description of this virtue is anything other than simple personification.

       Even if Proverbs 8 does in some way allude to the preincarnate Christ, it does not prove that He was created at some point in time. Wisdom was "brought forth" before the earth was created (verses 23b,25), but "brought forth" does not necessarily denote origin with reference to time. In the same breath, Wisdom informs us, "I have been established from everlasting" (verse 23a), indicating that there was never a time when she did not exist.

       Generally, the poetic description of Proverbs 89 should not be interpreted Christologically, but should be understood simply as the personification of an outstanding virtue.

In Isaiah 48:16, the speaker, who is clearly God, distinguishes Himself from two other personalities. He refers to one as the "Lord God," and to the other as "His Spirit." Doesn't this prove that God is a Trinity?

Isaiah 48:16 states: "Come near to Me, hear this: I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, I was there. And now the Lord God and His Spirit have sent Me." In the preceding verses, and perhaps in the first part of verse 16, God is the Speaker. However, in the latter part of verse 16, the prophet is the speaker. He speaks of his own divinely appointed mission. Of course, the prophet's words, in their fullest sense, apply to the Messiah and His mission.

       The "Lord God" and the Messiah are two distinct Persons, but why should we think that "His Spirit" is a third Person? Remember, Scripture tells us that man has a spirit (1 Corinthians 2:11; Ecclesiastes 12:7). Is a man's spirit a person distinct from the man? Of course not! Why, then, should we think that "His Spirit" is a personality distinct from the "Lord God"?

       The Spirit of God is consistently presented as the power, spiritual extension, influence, indwelling, and presence of Godnot as a third Person within a triune Godhead. This definition applies perfectly to Isaiah's reference to "His Spirit."

       Isaiah 48:16 provides no support for trinitarian dogma.

Why is Christ called "the everlasting Father" in Isaiah 9:6?

The Hebrew term translated "father" is ab, which means father, ancestor, source, or inventor. The reference to Christ as "everlasting Father" is rich in meaning. He is a Father in the sense that He is Creatorthat is, He was the active Agent through whom God created all things (John 1:1,2; Colossians 1:16; Hebrews 1:2). He is also a Father in the sense that He is the Source of salvation, the Head of the new creation (Ephesians 1:21,22; Colossians 1:18). As the first Adam was the father of "those who are made of dust," the second Adam (Christ) is the Father of "those who are heavenly" (1 Corinthians 15:47,48). This does not mean that Christ and God the Father are one and the same; it simply means that Christ is a Father in the sense that He is the Beginning, the Origin, of God's spiritual creation. The patriarchs of IsraelAbraham, Isaac, Jacob, the sons of Jacob, and the heads of the tribes that descended from themare repeatedly referred to as "the fathers" in Scripture. (The term patriarch means "father.") Christ, as the singular Seed of Abraham (Galatians 3:16), is the everlasting Patriarch of Abraham's spiritual seed. Paul wrote, "And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's seed [regardless of physical lineage], and heirs according to the promise [the promise given to Abraham]" (Galatians 3:29). The title of Father belongs to God the Father in a unique way, but Scripture reveals that the term has different senses of meaning and appropriately applies to many. Since the first Adam is the father of humankind; since Abraham is the "father of the faithful"; since he, along with Isaac, Jacob, Jacob's sons, and the heads of the tribes of Israel are called "fathers"; and since the apostle Paul refers to himself as a "father" to the Christians at Corinth (1 Corinthians 4:15), it is not surprising that Christthe divine Agent in creation; the second Adam; the Origin, Beginning, Source, and Head of God's spiritual creationis called "everlasting Father" in Isaiah 9:6.

You have stated that Jesus Christ bled to death after being pierced by a Roman soldier's spear (or sword). However, John 19:33,34 says that the soldier pierced Jesus after seeing that He was already dead. Why do you say that Jesus was pierced before He died?

First, let's notice the wording of Matthew 27:48-50 as it appears in the King James Version (KJV):

       "And straightway one of them ran, and took a sponge, and filled it with vinegar, and put it on a reed, and gave Him to drink. The rest said, Let be, let us see whether Elias will come to save Him. Jesus, when He had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost."

       This passage says nothing about Jesus being pierced. However, many ancient manuscripts include a statement at the end of verse 49 that does not appear in the KJV. This statement is included in some of our English versions, including the Fenton and Moffatt translations. Notice how the Fenton translation renders verses 49 and 50:

       "But the others called out, 'Let Him alone! Let us see whether Elijah will come and save Him!' But another taking a spear pierced His side, when blood and water came out. Jesus, however, having again called out with a loud voice, resigned His spirit."

       The Moffatt translation renders the passage similarly: "But the other said, 'Stop, let us see if Elijah does come to save him!' (Seizing a lance, another pricked [the Greek root is nussoo, which means "pierced"] his side, and out came water and blood.)"

       Neither Mark's account nor Luke's tell of Jesus being pierced, but remember that no one account describes all the details. In order to get a full picture of what happened, and the order in which each event occurred, it is necessary to put all the accounts together, and to consider any possible variation in translation. With this in mind, let's turn our attention to John's account.

       John 19:33,34 states: "But when they came to Jesus and saw that He was already dead, they did not break His legs. But one of the soldiers pierced His side with a spear, and immediately blood and water came out."

       This account, as it appears in English, seems to say that the soldier pierced Jesus after it was discovered that He was already dead. The usual explanation is that they wanted to make sure He was dead. However, in the Greek, the word translated "pierced" in our English Bibles is in the aorist tense; therefore, the term ("pierced") refers not to the time of the action, but to the kind of action. Since "pierced" is in the aorist tense in the Greek, the passage could mean that Christ was pierced after the soldiers discovered that He was dead, or it could mean that He had already been pierced when the soldiers observed that He was dead. It can be understood either way, but in view of Matthew's account, with the insertion of the missing portion of verse 49 (chapter 27), we have reason to believe that John was saying that the soldiers didn't break Jesus's' legs because He was already dead, having been pierced.

       Other scriptures support the above. For instance, the manner in which the Passover and other sacrifices (all of which foreshadowed Christ) were killed (they were "pierced," or cut with a blade, and bled to death) more closely fits the description of Christ bleeding to death as the result of being pierced. While this alone does not prove that Christ died after being pierced, when all things are consideredthat is, the missing verse, John's use of the aorist tense, and Christ's death compared with the Passover sacrificeit is evident that Christ died after being pierced.

       It is also significant that Pilate marveled that Christ's death occurred so quickly (Mark 15:4245). When report came that He was already dead, Pilate checked with a centurion to make certain that He was in fact dead. Pilate knew that death through crucifixion involved prolonged suffering, often lasting two or three days. The two "thieves" who were crucified alongside Christ died after having their legs broken, but Christ was dead already. Why did His death occur so soon? The most plausible explanation is that He bled to death the result of having been pierced.